Reactie van Os op mijn vraag: "How do you combine your comments on slavery with Leviticus 25: 44-46?"
Os Guinness schreef:
As I said in Delft, there is all the difference between the Old and the New Testaments (see Galatians 3:28), and in the Old between 'chattel slavery' and 'indentured servitude.' The Bible roundly condemns chattel slavery (Exodus 21:16), because it is forced, involuntary and permanent, and regulates the latter. As you know, there were no bankruptcy laws in those days, and indentured service was away of remedying debts that could not be paid. People fell into an economic hole and there was no way out except to work to pay it off. But at the same time there were 1) provisions that allowed people to pay off their own debts and go free, 2) provisions that allowed family members to do it for them, 3) and of course the seventh year allowed them all to go free, and 4) the fiftieth year was a year of Jubilee and freedom all round. The net effect was that no slavery of any sort was permanent in Israel. Freedom is actually the overall objective of this very chapter, and it includes the famous verse that has meant so much to revolutionaries and to freedom fighters: "Proclaim liberty throughout all the land." (25:10).
In other words, I would urge you to interpret Leviticus 25:44 and slavery in light of the Bible's overall teaching and practice, and not in light of, say, Western or Muslim practices of chattel slavery. Would that we took seriously the Bible's call for regular rest-breaks for people, and freedom from all forms of slavery and freedom for the environment!
Daarop heb ik gereageerd met:
Dear Os,
Thank you for your reply to my question. To me your argumentation for explaining slavery in the Bible as indentured servitude is incorrect. You might have a point for the Israelites being hired for indentured service but Leviticus 25:44-46 is very clear: "As for your male and female slaves whom you may have: you may buy male and female slaves from among the nations that are around you. You may also buy from among the strangers who sojourn with you and their clans that are with you, who have been born in your land, and they may be your property. You may bequeath them to your sons after you to inherit as a possession forever. You may make slaves of them, but over your brothers the people of Israel you shall not rule, one over another ruthlessly."
We read 1) slaves are property, 2) slaves are bequeathed, 3) slaves are inherited as possession forever. So there is no allowance for all to go free, only for the Israelites, that is very clear in these verses. In fact, this is discrimination; Israelites are receiving a preferred treatment over other people solely because they are a descendant from Israel people. How should I interpret the these verses in such a way that I would have to completely overrule certain words that are quite obvious such as: property, bequeath them and possession forever?